What is the actual prevalence when definitions/criteria change?
Responding Yes to one or more of the questions denotes a need for further assessment.
Scoring is 0 for never, and 1, 2, 3, or 4 for the subsequent answer choices in each question. The cut-off score for the AUDIT-C is usually a total of 3 points for women and 4 for men: ie, a score of 3 or higher for women and a score of 4 or higher for men indicate alcohol use disorder and the need for further assessment.
Different criteria for men and women in AUDIT-C, not so for CAGE - based on perception in CAGE based on consumption in AUDIT-C.
What is the actual prevalence when definitions/criteria are different?
We rarely (if ever) have the entire population of interest in our cohort, but we often (almost always) want to infer something about the population. Those data points that are missing may bias our results.
When we talk about cases, we make the assumption that people can be placed in either the affected or non-affected category. This is often a very useful assumption, but can be misleading. Naturally there is a difference between those who have been exposed to asbestos once every day versus those who have been exposed once every month.
But it is often not the precise measurement of a phenomena that is important in epidemiology (in contrast to in physics where it is very important), but rather it is important to have a measurement that can help us make people more healthy.
A case or affected may be defined in several ways when a dichotomy is not natural: